Question 8 of 8: Shear and Bending-Moment Diagrams — Beam with an Overhang
Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)
Notes on this paper
National Exams May 2016 — 04-BS-6: Mechanics of Materials (3 hours, closed book,
one hand-written aid sheet permitted). Any FIVE of the eight questions constitute a complete
paper on the official exam; every question is answered below. A W-shape section-property table is attached at the end of the official exam; it is a red herring here — every question below supplies its own
built-up or standard section, and Question 2 cites the CISC-standard W610×125 properties
directly.
Reference texts: Hibbeler, Mechanics of Materials, 10th ed. (composite
beams, deflection by integration, combined loading, transformation of stress, columns, torsion,
shear/moment diagrams); CISC Handbook of Steel Construction (W-shape section properties).
Question 8: Shear and Bending-Moment Diagrams — Beam with an Overhang (20 marks)
overhang 0≤x≤4 m (free tip at x=0, roller at x=4 m), main span 4–10 m (pin at x=10 m)
Distributed load
w = 10 kN/m, over the full overhang (0≤x≤4 m)
Applied couple
M0 = 25 kN·m at the free tip (x=0), counterclockwise (by the arc's sweep in the printed figure)
Section
T-shape: flange 150×25 mm (top), web 30×200 mm
Steel
Fy = 350 MPa, τy = 75 MPa, E = 200 GPa
Beam with overhang: UDL, applied couple, and support layout.
Beam cross-section (T-shape).
Find. Piecewise V(x) and M(x) over the whole beam, and the corresponding SFD and
BMD with all critical values labeled.
Approach. Find the reactions from global equilibrium (the applied couple enters
the moment equation directly), then build V(x), M(x) segment by segment using $dV/dx=-w(x)$,
$dM/dx=V(x)$, with the standard rule that a counterclockwise applied couple produces an immediate
DOWNWARD jump in M(x) just to its right (Macaulay's-method convention) while leaving V(x)
unaffected.
Reactions. Taking moments about x=0 (CCW+), with $R_R$ at x=4 m and $R_P$ at
x=10 m, UDL resultant 40 kN at x=2 m, and the +25 kN·m applied couple:
$$25 - 2(40) + 4R_R+10R_P=0\qquad R_R+R_P=40$$
$$\Rightarrow\quad R_R=57.5\ \text{kN (up)}\qquad R_P=-17.5\ \text{kN, i.e. 17.5 kN acting DOWNWARD}$$
(The overhang load and the applied couple together tend to lift the far end, so the pin must hold
the beam down there — a perfectly valid pin reaction.)
Segment 1 ($0\le x\le4$ m, overhang). Only the UDL contributes to V(x); the
couple enters M(x) as an immediate jump right at x=0:
$$V(x)=-wx = -10x\ \text{kN}\qquad M(x)=-M_0-\frac{wx^2}{2}=-25-5x^2\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$$
$$V(0^+)=0\qquad V(4^-)=-40\ \text{kN}\qquad M(0^+)=-25\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}\qquad M(4)=-25-5(16)=-105\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$$
At the roller (x=4 m). V jumps by $+R_R$; M is continuous (no couple applied here):
$$V(4^+)=-40+57.5=+17.5\ \text{kN}\qquad M(4)=-105\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}\ \text{(unchanged)}$$
Segment 2 ($4\le x\le10$ m, main span). No load acts in this span, so V is
constant and M is linear:
$$V(x)=17.5\ \text{kN}\qquad M(x)=-105+17.5(x-4)\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$$
$$M(10^-)=-105+17.5(6)=0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}\quad\boxed{\text{closes to zero exactly at the pin, as required}}$$