Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)
Notes on this paper
National Examination, 04-BS-16 Discrete Mathematics, May 2016. Closed book, no aids. The exam instructs "answer 10 of 12 questions"; every question is answered below as a complete study resource.
Reference texts: Rosen, Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications, 7th ed. (logic, induction, combinatorics, probability, relations, graph theory).
Given. (a) The claimed identity for all $n\ge 1$. (b) A flawed strong-induction "proof" that every power of a nonzero real is 1.
Find. (a) A rigorous proof (by induction). (b) The precise step where the argument breaks down.
Approach. (a) standard induction on $n$: verify the base case, then add the $(k+1)$-th term to the inductive hypothesis and simplify. (b) trace the inductive step for the smallest possible $k$ and check every exponent used is actually covered by the inductive hypothesis.
(a) Prove $1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+n\cdot n!=(n+1)!-1$ by induction on $n$.Base case ($n=1$): LHS $=1\cdot1!=1$. RHS $=(2)!-1=2-1=1$. Equal, so the base case holds.
Inductive step: assume $1\cdot1!+\cdots+k\cdot k!=(k+1)!-1$ for some $k\ge 1$ (inductive hypothesis). Add the next term $(k+1)\cdot(k+1)!$ to both sides:
$$1\cdot1!+\cdots+k\cdot k!+(k+1)(k+1)! = \big[(k+1)!-1\big]+(k+1)(k+1)!$$
Factor $(k+1)!$ from the right-hand side:
$$=(k+1)!\big[1+(k+1)\big]-1=(k+1)!(k+2)-1=(k+2)!-1$$
This is exactly the claimed formula with $n=k+1$. By the principle of mathematical induction, the identity holds for all $n\ge 1$.
$$\boxed{1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+n\cdot n!=(n+1)!-1\ \text{for all } n\ge1}$$
(b) Locating the flaw. The basis covers only $n=0$, so the inductive step must work from $k=0$ (using $a^0=1$ to conclude $a^1=1$). At $k=0$ the step reads $a^{1}=\dfrac{a^{0}\cdot a^{0}}{a^{-1}}$. The exponent $k-1=-1$ is NEGATIVE, so $a^{k-1}=a^{-1}$ is not covered by the inductive hypothesis (which only assumes $a^j=1$ for nonnegative $j\le k$); in fact $a^{-1}=1/a$, which equals 1 only when $a=1$. The step is valid only for $k\ge1$, but it is needed at $k=0$ to get from the basis to $a^1$, so the chain never starts and the "proof" collapses (as it must, since $a^1=a\ne1$ whenever $a\ne1$).
$$\boxed{\text{Flaw: at } k=0 \text{ the step uses } a^{k-1}=a^{-1},\text{ which the hypothesis } (0\le j\le k) \text{ does not cover,}}$$
$$\boxed{\text{so the step from } a^0=1 \text{ to } a^1=1 \text{ is unjustified and the whole argument collapses.}}$$
Question 9 – results
Part
Result
a
Proved by induction (base $n=1$, step adds $(k+1)(k+1)!$)
b
Flaw at $k=0$: the step uses $a^{k-1}=a^{-1}$, not covered by the hypothesis