22-Mec-A5 Electrical and Electronics Engineering · December 2016
Question 4 of 8: Transformer Magnetic Circuit and Maximum Power Transfer
Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)
Notes on this paper
Paper format. PEO/Engineers Canada National Examination
07-Mec-A5 Electrical & Electronics Engineering, December 2016 — 3 hours,
closed book, Casio or Sharp approved calculator only. Eight questions
of equal value; any five constitute a complete paper. All eight are solved
here, since the set is intended as a study resource.
Constants printed on the front page.
$\pi = 3.14159$, $1\ \text{hp} = 746\ \text{W}$, and the permeability of free space
$\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \text{H}\,\text{m}^{-1}$.
Given. The core carries both windings on one limb, and the flux returns through two parallel air paths whose lengths and cross-sections are tabulated. Because the iron is assumed to have infinite permeability, it contributes no reluctance and the entire magnetic circuit is these two paths.
Given data
Quantity
Symbol
Value
First flux-path length
$L_1$
$3.77 \times 10^{-2}$ m
Second flux-path length
$L_2$
$7.54 \times 10^{-2}$ m
First path cross-section
$A_1$
0.02 m$^2$
Second path cross-section
$A_2$
0.02 m$^2$
Primary turns
$N_1$
200
Secondary turns
$N_2$
20
Operating frequency
$f$
1000 Hz
Primary dc test
—
10 mV gives 100 mA
Secondary dc test
—
0.1 mV gives 100 mA
Transducer (load) impedance
$Z_L$
0.078 $\Omega$
Find. Every element of the equivalent circuit referred to the primary — the two winding resistances and the magnetising reactance — and then the amplifier output impedance that maximises power delivered to the transducer.
Approach. A dc test excites no flux, so it isolates the winding resistance alone; the ac magnetising branch comes instead from the magnetic circuit, with the two air paths in parallel as seen by the wound limb. Referring the secondary quantities through $a^{2}$ then reduces the whole device to a simple series–shunt network, and the maximum-power-transfer theorem asks for the conjugate of the impedance seen looking in at the primary.
Extract the winding resistances from the dc tests. With direct current there is no rate of change of flux and hence no induced voltage, so the applied voltage divides across resistance only: $$R_1 = \frac{10\ \text{mV}}{100\ \text{mA}} = 0.100\ \Omega, \qquad R_2 = \frac{0.1\ \text{mV}}{100\ \text{mA}} = 0.001\ \Omega.$$
Form the turns ratio and refer the secondary resistance. $a = N_1/N_2 = 200/20 = 10$, and resistances refer across the ideal transformer as the square of the ratio: $$a^{2}R_2 = 10^{2} \times 0.001 = 0.100\ \Omega.$$ The two windings therefore contribute equally once referred — the design is deliberately balanced.
Compute the reluctance of each air path. With the iron of infinite permeability the only reluctance is that of the two paths, $\mathcal{R} = L/(\mu_0 A)$: $$\mathcal{R}_1 = \frac{3.77\times10^{-2}}{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(0.02)} = 1.50\times10^{6}\ \text{A}\,\text{Wb}^{-1},$$ and since $L_2$ is exactly twice $L_1$ over the same area, $\mathcal{R}_2 = 3.00\times10^{6}\ \text{A}\,\text{Wb}^{-1}$.
Combine the paths and find the magnetising inductance. The two paths offer alternative routes for the flux leaving the wound limb, so their reluctances combine as elements in parallel: $$\mathcal{R}_{eq} = \frac{\mathcal{R}_1\mathcal{R}_2}{\mathcal{R}_1+\mathcal{R}_2} = \frac{(1.5)(3.0)}{4.5}\times10^{6} = 1.00\times10^{6}\ \text{A}\,\text{Wb}^{-1}.$$ The magnetising inductance seen from the primary follows as $$L_m = \frac{N_1^{2}}{\mathcal{R}_{eq}} = \frac{200^{2}}{1.00\times10^{6}} = \boxed{40\ \text{mH}}$$
Convert to a reactance at the operating frequency. $$X_m = 2\pi f L_m = 2\pi(1000)(0.040) = 251.3\ \Omega,$$ so the magnetising branch is $j251.3\ \Omega$. This completes part [a]: the equivalent circuit is $R_1 = 0.1\ \Omega$ in series with the parallel combination of $jX_m = j251.3\ \Omega$ and the referred secondary branch $a^{2}R_2 = 0.1\ \Omega$ in series with the referred load.
Part [a] — equivalent circuit referred to the primary. Leakage reactances and core losses are neglected as the question directs, so only the magnetising branch shunts the series path.
Part [b] — matching the amplifier. With the transducer connected, the amplifier looks into the whole network:
Refer the load to the primary. $$a^{2}Z_L = 100 \times 0.078 = 7.80\ \Omega,$$ so the series branch beyond the magnetising node totals $$R_1 + a^{2}R_2 + a^{2}Z_L = 0.1 + 0.1 + 7.8 = 8.00\ \Omega.$$
Combine with the magnetising branch. The magnetising reactance shunts the series path, so the input impedance is $$Z_{in} = \frac{jX_m\,(8.00)}{8.00 + jX_m} = \frac{j251.3 \times 8.00}{8.00 + j251.3} = 7.99 + j0.254\ \Omega.$$ Because $X_m$ is some thirty times the series resistance, the magnetising branch is very nearly an open circuit and shifts the result by only about 0.1 %.
Apply the maximum-power-transfer theorem. Maximum power is delivered when the source impedance is the complex conjugate of the load it drives, so the amplifier output impedance must be $$Z_{amp} = Z_{in}^{*} = \boxed{7.99 - j0.25\ \Omega \;\approx\; 8\ \Omega}$$ In practice the amplifier would simply be specified as an 8 $\Omega$ output — the small capacitive term needed to cancel the magnetising reactance is within the tolerance of any real output stage.
Final results — Question 4
Quantity
Result
Primary winding resistance $R_1$
0.100 $\Omega$
Secondary winding resistance $R_2$
0.001 $\Omega$
Turns ratio $a = N_1/N_2$
10
Referred secondary resistance $a^{2}R_2$
0.100 $\Omega$
Path reluctances $\mathcal{R}_1,\ \mathcal{R}_2$
$1.50\times10^{6}$ and $3.00\times10^{6}$ A/Wb
Equivalent reluctance (parallel)
$1.00\times10^{6}$ A/Wb
Magnetising inductance $L_m$
40 mH
Magnetising reactance $X_m$ at 1 kHz
251.3 $\Omega$
Referred load $a^{2}Z_L$
7.80 $\Omega$
Input impedance $Z_{in}$
$7.99 + j0.254\ \Omega$
Amplifier output impedance
$7.99 - j0.25\ \Omega \approx 8\ \Omega$
Check — reading the specification table. The examination paper prints the path lengths clearly as $3.77\times10^{-2}$ m and $7.54\times10^{-2}$ m, and the negative exponents are used here exactly as printed. The reading is confirmed by the arithmetic: it makes the two reluctances land on exactly $1.5\times10^{6}$ and $3.0\times10^{6}$ A/Wb and the magnetising inductance on exactly 40 mH, which is plainly how the question was designed. A positive exponent would give a physically absurd core several kilometres long.