16-Civ-B8 Management of Construction · December 2016
Question 4 of 6: Engineering Economics
Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)
Notes on this paper
Paper format. 98-Civ-B8 Management of Construction, National Exams
December 2016. Three hours, closed book, one approved calculator (Casio or Sharp). Six questions
of equal value (20 marks each); any five constitute a complete paper and only the first five
presented in the answer book are marked. All six are solved here, because the set
is a study resource rather than an examination script.
Reference texts.
Halpin & Senior, Construction Management, 4th ed. — precedence networks with
lags, bonding, project control.
Hendrickson, Project Management for Construction, 2nd ed. — scheduling, cost
control, earned value, financing of constructed facilities.
Project Management Institute, A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge
(PMBOK Guide), 6th ed. — schedule and cost management, earned value.
Fraser et al., Global Engineering Economics, 5th Canadian ed. — present worth,
deferred annuities, maximum justifiable investment.
Canadian Construction Documents Committee: CCDC 2 (stipulated price), CCDC 4 (unit price),
CCDC 14 (design-build), CCDC 3 (cost-plus), CCDC 23 Guide to Calling Bids and Awarding
Contracts; CCDC 220 / 221 / 222 bond forms.
Builders Lien Act (British Columbia, RSBC 1997 c. 45) and the provincial
construction-lien / prompt-payment statutes; RSMeans Residential Square Foot Costs.
Given. Two mutually exclusive courses of action on one section of pavement,
compared over the ten years during which they differ.
Given data
Quantity
Symbol
Value
Maintenance cost, do nothing (all years)
\(M_0\)
$7,000 per year
Maintenance cost with new surface, years 1–5
\(M_1\)
$2,500 per year
Maintenance cost with new surface, years 6–10
\(M_2\)
$4,000 per year
Maintenance cost with new surface, year 11 onward
—
$7,000 per year (identical to do-nothing)
Interest rate
\(i\)
5 % per year
Period over which the alternatives differ
\(n\)
10 years
Find. The largest first cost \(P\) that could be paid for the new surface and still
leave the investment justified at 5 % — that is, the present worth of the maintenance savings it
produces.
Figure 4.1 — cash-flow diagram of the incremental (savings) position: an
outlay \(P\) at time zero against ten years of maintenance savings, $4,500 per year
for five years then $3,000 per year for five years.
Approach. Work with the incremental cash flow between the two alternatives —
the annual saving in maintenance — and set the maximum justifiable investment equal to the
present worth of that saving, since at exactly that first cost the investment earns precisely the
required 5 %.
Form the incremental cash flow. The only difference between the two alternatives
is maintenance, and only during the first ten years; from year 11 onward both cost
$7,000 per year, so those flows cancel and can be ignored entirely. The annual
savings are
$$A_1 = 7{,}000 - 2{,}500 = \$4{,}500 \text{ per year, years 1 to 5},$$
$$A_2 = 7{,}000 - 4{,}000 = \$3{,}000 \text{ per year, years 6 to 10}.$$
This cancellation is the key simplification: it turns an infinite-horizon comparison into a ten-year
one.
Evaluate the two interest factors at 5 %. The uniform-series present-worth factor
and the single-payment present-worth factor for five years are
$$(P/A,\,5\%,\,5) = \frac{1-(1.05)^{-5}}{0.05} = 4.3295, \qquad
(P/F,\,5\%,\,5) = (1.05)^{-5} = 0.78353 .$$
Discount the first five years of saving. This series starts at year 1, so the
uniform-series factor places it directly at time zero:
$$P_1 = A_1\,(P/A,\,5\%,\,5) = 4{,}500 \times 4.3295 = \$19{,}482.65 .$$
Discount the deferred second series. The second series runs from year 6 to year
10. The \((P/A)\) factor placed on it returns a value at year 5, not at year 0, so it must then be
brought back five more years with the single-payment factor:
$$P_2 = A_2\,(P/A,\,5\%,\,5)\,(P/F,\,5\%,\,5) = 3{,}000 \times 4.3295 \times 0.78353 = \$10{,}176.77 .$$
Forgetting the second factor is the classic error in deferred-annuity problems and would overstate the
answer by about $2,800.
Add the two components to obtain the maximum justifiable investment.
$$P_{\max} = P_1 + P_2 = 19{,}482.65 + 10{,}176.77$$
$$\boxed{P_{\max} = \$29{,}659 \;\;(\text{approximately } \$29{,}660)}$$
Check the result independently. Discounting the ten savings one year at a time,
\(\sum_{y=1}^{5} 4{,}500(1.05)^{-y} + \sum_{y=6}^{10} 3{,}000(1.05)^{-y}\), reproduces
$29,659.42, confirming the factor arithmetic. As a sanity bracket, the undiscounted
savings total \(5(4{,}500)+5(3{,}000) = \$37{,}500\), so the present worth must be somewhat less than
that but clearly more than ten years of the smaller saving alone
(\(3{,}000 \times 7.7217 = \$23{,}165\)) — and $29,659 sits properly between the
two.
Check: the answer is a break-even first cost, not a recommendation. Spending
exactly $29,659 makes the new surface earn precisely 5 % and leaves the owner
indifferent; any price below that is justified and any price above it is not. Two assumptions are
built in and should be stated on an exam script: that the maintenance savings occur as end-of-year
amounts (the standard convention for annual costs), and that the new surface has no salvage value and
requires no other cost or benefit — the question’s phrase “maintenance costs are the
only saving” authorises both. It is also worth noting that the surface evidently has a
ten-year effective life, since maintenance reverts to $7,000 afterwards, so no
replacement or salvage term belongs in the analysis.