Question 3 of 8: Vertical Deflection of a Doubly Overhanging Beam
Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)
Notes on this paper
Paper format. National Exams, May 2016 —
07-Str-A1 Elementary Structural Analysis, 3 hours, CLOSED BOOK
(an approved Sharp or Casio calculator is permitted). Six questions constitute
a complete paper: Questions 1–5 are compulsory and one only of
Questions 6, 7 or 8 is attempted, for 100 marks
(6 + 18 + 15 + 18 + 21 + 22). Marks are shown in the left margin.
All eight questions are worked below, because the three
alternatives exercise three different methods — slope deflection,
virtual work and three-hinged-frame statics — and the complete set is
the more useful study resource.
Every structure on this paper is defined by a hand-drawn figure and nothing
else: the printed text gives the task, the drawing gives the geometry, the
loads and the support types.
Sign conventions used throughout. Shear force is positive
when the resultant of the forces to the left of a section acts upwards;
bending moment is positive when it sags the member (tension on the underside),
and sagging ordinates are plotted above the axis in every diagram.
Truss member forces are quoted as T for tension and C for
compression. In the slope-deflection work of Question 6 the member-end moments
follow the usual convention, clockwise on the member end taken as positive.
$8\ \text{m}$: overhang 1 m, span 6 m, overhang 1 m
Pin support A
$x = 1\ \text{m}$
Point B
$x = 4\ \text{m}$ — the mid-span of A–C
Roller support C
$x = 7\ \text{m}$
Left tip load
$60\ \text{kN}$ downward at $x = 0$
Right tip load
$40\ \text{kN}$ downward at $x = 8\ \text{m}$
Flexural rigidity
$EI = 15\,000\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}^2$, uniform
Find. The vertical deflection of point B, with its
direction stated.
Approach. The beam is statically determinate, so find the
reactions, write the real bending moment $M(x)$, then apply the unit-load
(virtual work) method with a unit downward load at B:
$\delta_B = \int M m\,\mathrm{d}x / EI$. Because the unit load lies inside the
span, its virtual moment $m$ is zero on both overhangs, so only the 6 m span
contributes.
Find the reactions. Taking moments about A, with
distances measured from A and downward loads positive,
$$R_C(7-1) = 40(8-1) - 60(1-0) = 280 - 60 = 220$$
$$\boxed{R_C = \tfrac{110}{3} = 36.667\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow,\qquad
R_A = 100 - 36.667 = \tfrac{190}{3} = 63.333\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow}$$
Write the real bending moment. On the left overhang
$M = -60x$, so at A the moment is
$M_A = -60.0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$. Between the supports,
$$M(x) = -60x + \tfrac{190}{3}(x-1) = \tfrac{10}{3}x - \tfrac{190}{3}$$
a straight line from $-60.0$ at A through $-50.0$ at B to
$-40.0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$ at C, where the right overhang closes it
back to zero. The whole span hogs: there is no sagging anywhere,
which is the physical reason the answer will come out upward.
Apply the unit load at B and write the virtual moment.
With a unit downward load at mid-span of the 6 m span, the virtual
reactions are $0.5$ at A and $0.5$ at C, so with $u = x - 1$ measured from A,
$$m(u) = \begin{cases} 0.5\,u, & 0 \le u \le 3\\[2pt]
0.5\,(6-u), & 3 \le u \le 6 \end{cases}$$
and $m = 0$ on both overhangs, because a unit load between the supports
produces no moment outside them.
Integrate the product over the span. With
$M(u) = \tfrac{1}{3}(10u - 180)$,
$$\begin{aligned}
\int_0^{3} M m\,\mathrm{d}u
&= \frac{0.5}{3}\int_0^{3}\left(10u^2 - 180u\right)\mathrm{d}u = -120\\
\int_3^{6} M m\,\mathrm{d}u
&= \frac{0.5}{3}\int_3^{6}(10u-180)(6-u)\,\mathrm{d}u = -105
\end{aligned}$$
so that $\int M m\,\mathrm{d}x = -225\ \text{kN}^2\cdot\text{m}^3$.
Divide by the flexural rigidity.
$$\delta_B = \frac{1}{EI}\int M m\,\mathrm{d}x
= \frac{-225}{15\,000} = -0.0150\ \text{m}$$
The negative sign means the displacement opposes the assumed downward unit
load, so
$$\boxed{\delta_B = 15.0\ \text{mm}\ \text{UPWARD}}$$
Confirm it independently. Split the hogging moment
diagram into a uniform part $M_0 = -50\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$ (the average
of $-60$ and $-40$) and a linear antisymmetric part. The antisymmetric part
contributes nothing at mid-span, and a simple span carrying equal end
moments $M_0$ deflects at mid-span by $M_0L^2/8EI$, giving
$$\delta_B = \frac{50(6)^2}{8(15\,000)} = 0.0150\ \text{m}
= 15.0\ \text{mm}\ \uparrow$$
which reproduces the integral exactly.
Q3. Both tip loads hog the beam over its entire span, so the moment diagram never crosses the axis and point B rises rather than sags.