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07-Str-A1 · May 2016

Question 3 of 8: Vertical Deflection of a Doubly Overhanging Beam

Nivaar worked solution (AI-drafted; not reviewed by a licensed engineer)

Notes on this paper

Paper format. National Exams, May 2016 — 07-Str-A1 Elementary Structural Analysis, 3 hours, CLOSED BOOK (an approved Sharp or Casio calculator is permitted). Six questions constitute a complete paper: Questions 1–5 are compulsory and one only of Questions 6, 7 or 8 is attempted, for 100 marks (6 + 18 + 15 + 18 + 21 + 22). Marks are shown in the left margin. All eight questions are worked below, because the three alternatives exercise three different methods — slope deflection, virtual work and three-hinged-frame statics — and the complete set is the more useful study resource.

Every structure on this paper is defined by a hand-drawn figure and nothing else: the printed text gives the task, the drawing gives the geometry, the loads and the support types.

Sign conventions used throughout. Shear force is positive when the resultant of the forces to the left of a section acts upwards; bending moment is positive when it sags the member (tension on the underside), and sagging ordinates are plotted above the axis in every diagram. Truss member forces are quoted as T for tension and C for compression. In the slope-deflection work of Question 6 the member-end moments follow the usual convention, clockwise on the member end taken as positive.

Reference texts.

Question 3: Vertical Deflection of a Doubly Overhanging Beam (15 marks)

Question text not reproduced: the examination questions are © Engineers and Geoscientists BC. Open the official past paper (linked at the top of this page) to read the question, then follow the worked solution below.

Given.

QuantityValue
Total beam length$8\ \text{m}$: overhang 1 m, span 6 m, overhang 1 m
Pin support A$x = 1\ \text{m}$
Point B$x = 4\ \text{m}$ — the mid-span of A–C
Roller support C$x = 7\ \text{m}$
Left tip load$60\ \text{kN}$ downward at $x = 0$
Right tip load$40\ \text{kN}$ downward at $x = 8\ \text{m}$
Flexural rigidity$EI = 15\,000\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}^2$, uniform

Find. The vertical deflection of point B, with its direction stated.

Approach. The beam is statically determinate, so find the reactions, write the real bending moment $M(x)$, then apply the unit-load (virtual work) method with a unit downward load at B: $\delta_B = \int M m\,\mathrm{d}x / EI$. Because the unit load lies inside the span, its virtual moment $m$ is zero on both overhangs, so only the 6 m span contributes.

  1. Find the reactions. Taking moments about A, with distances measured from A and downward loads positive, $$R_C(7-1) = 40(8-1) - 60(1-0) = 280 - 60 = 220$$ $$\boxed{R_C = \tfrac{110}{3} = 36.667\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow,\qquad R_A = 100 - 36.667 = \tfrac{190}{3} = 63.333\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow}$$
  2. Write the real bending moment. On the left overhang $M = -60x$, so at A the moment is $M_A = -60.0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$. Between the supports, $$M(x) = -60x + \tfrac{190}{3}(x-1) = \tfrac{10}{3}x - \tfrac{190}{3}$$ a straight line from $-60.0$ at A through $-50.0$ at B to $-40.0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$ at C, where the right overhang closes it back to zero. The whole span hogs: there is no sagging anywhere, which is the physical reason the answer will come out upward.
  3. Apply the unit load at B and write the virtual moment. With a unit downward load at mid-span of the 6 m span, the virtual reactions are $0.5$ at A and $0.5$ at C, so with $u = x - 1$ measured from A, $$m(u) = \begin{cases} 0.5\,u, & 0 \le u \le 3\\[2pt] 0.5\,(6-u), & 3 \le u \le 6 \end{cases}$$ and $m = 0$ on both overhangs, because a unit load between the supports produces no moment outside them.
  4. Integrate the product over the span. With $M(u) = \tfrac{1}{3}(10u - 180)$, $$\begin{aligned} \int_0^{3} M m\,\mathrm{d}u &= \frac{0.5}{3}\int_0^{3}\left(10u^2 - 180u\right)\mathrm{d}u = -120\\ \int_3^{6} M m\,\mathrm{d}u &= \frac{0.5}{3}\int_3^{6}(10u-180)(6-u)\,\mathrm{d}u = -105 \end{aligned}$$ so that $\int M m\,\mathrm{d}x = -225\ \text{kN}^2\cdot\text{m}^3$.
  5. Divide by the flexural rigidity. $$\delta_B = \frac{1}{EI}\int M m\,\mathrm{d}x = \frac{-225}{15\,000} = -0.0150\ \text{m}$$ The negative sign means the displacement opposes the assumed downward unit load, so $$\boxed{\delta_B = 15.0\ \text{mm}\ \text{UPWARD}}$$
  6. Confirm it independently. Split the hogging moment diagram into a uniform part $M_0 = -50\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$ (the average of $-60$ and $-40$) and a linear antisymmetric part. The antisymmetric part contributes nothing at mid-span, and a simple span carrying equal end moments $M_0$ deflects at mid-span by $M_0L^2/8EI$, giving $$\delta_B = \frac{50(6)^2}{8(15\,000)} = 0.0150\ \text{m} = 15.0\ \text{mm}\ \uparrow$$ which reproduces the integral exactly.
Q3 — beam and bending moment diagram (kN·m, hogging shown below the axis)60 kN40 kNABC1 m3 m3 m1 mEI = 15 000 kN·m²BMD-60-40-50
Q3. Both tip loads hog the beam over its entire span, so the moment diagram never crosses the axis and point B rises rather than sags.
ResultValue
Reaction at A$63.333\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow$
Reaction at C$36.667\ \text{kN}\ \uparrow$
Bending moment at A / B / C$-60.0\ /\ -50.0\ /\ -40.0\ \text{kN}\cdot\text{m}$ (all hogging)
Virtual work integral$\int Mm\,\mathrm{d}x = -225\ \text{kN}^2\cdot\text{m}^3$
Deflection at B$\delta_B = 15.0\ \text{mm}\ \textbf{upward}$